NURS 6521 Midterm Exam
Advanced Pharmacology
Question 1
A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a 70-year-old patient who is taking desmopressin (DDAVP). The patient has a history of cardiovascular disease. The nurse will prioritize the assessment of which of the following?
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Weight |
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Electrolyte levels |
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Dehydration |
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Body temperature |
Question 2
A 46-year-old white American has been prescribed a drug that binds to acid glycoproteins. The nurse understands that white Americans usually receive
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a higher-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins. |
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a lower-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins. |
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the recommended normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins. |
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one half the recommended dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins. |
Question 3
A patient on valproic acid may experience which of the following symptoms?
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Weight gain |
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Nausea |
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Constipation |
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All of the above |
Question 4
A patient with seasonal allergies is exasperated by her recent nasal congestion and has expressed her desire to treat it by using pseudoephedrine. The nurse should inform the patient that
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under the Combat Methamphetamine Abuse Act, pseudoephedrine now requires a prescription. |
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drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves. |
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she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine. |
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pseudoephedrine is being phased out of the marketplace in order to combat illegal use. |
Question 5
You are caring for a patient with CHF and the attending physician has just started the patient on Digoxin 5 days ago. All of these are signs of Digoxin toxicity except:
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Irregular pulse |
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A digoxin level of 2.0 ng/ml |
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Patient states they are seeing spots |
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Nausea/vomiting |
Question 6
What is a serious side effect of ibuprofen in the older adult patient?
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rebound headaches |
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Impairment of renal function |
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neuropathy |
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pancreatic failure |
Question 7
Some asthmatics have aspirin sensitivity. This is known as:
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Cross tolerance |
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Efficacy |
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Placebo effect |
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Allergic reaction |
Question 8
Which of the following will a Nurse Practitioner inform the patient is one of the most common adverse effects of guaifenesin (Robitussin)?
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Gastrointestinal distress |
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Increased blood pressure |
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Increased blood glucose |
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Urinary retention |
Question 9
Absorption of medications is a variable process that is dependent upon all of the following except
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Blood Flow |
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pH |
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Creatine Clearance |
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Surface |
Question 10
Which of the following patients is most likely to benefit from the administration of an adrenergic agonist?
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A man who is in cardiogenic shock following a myocardial infarction |
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A man who has a diagnosis of primary hypertension |
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A woman who has been admitted with a suspected ischemic stroke |
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A woman who is in labor and may require a caesarean section |
Question 11
A patient is recovering from an acute episode of thrombophlebitis and is being treated with warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg PO daily. In reviewing medication information, the Nurse Practitioner would include what information in their teaching?
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Maintain close watch on Intake and Output |
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Do not take a multivitamin supplement |
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Limit dairy products |
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Aerobic exercises are the most effective |
Question 12
Shirley, age 58, has been diabetic for 7 years. Her blood pressure for the last three office visits have been 154/100, 144/94, and 144/90. What would you prescribe today during her routine office visit?
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A calcium channel blocker |
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An ACE Inhibitor |
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No hypertension medication |
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A beta blocker |
Question 13
A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a female patient who has developed atelectasis because of thick mucus secretions. The Nurse Practitioner is monitoring IV administration of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) and notices that the patient’s face is flushed. The appropriate
nursing action would be to
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stop the administration of acetylcysteine. |
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slow the administration of acetylcysteine and administer diphenhydramine if ordered. |
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remove any residual drug from the patient’s face. |
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dilute the acetylcysteine solution. |
Question 14
Which of the following oral medications is the safest to use during pregnancy?
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Losartan |
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Methyldopa |
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Amlodipine |
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Lisinopril |
Question 15
All are considered the most common antibiotics used to treat H.pylori except:
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A. |
Metronidazole |
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B. |
Azithromycin |
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C. |
Clarithromycin |
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D. |
Amoxicillin |
Question 16
The effect of two different drugs is greater than one individual drug is known as
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A. |
Antagonism |
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B. |
Synergism |
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C. |
Polypharmacy |
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D. |
Mechanism of Action |
Question 17
To maximize the therapeutic effect of diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate, the nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication
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once a day. |
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twice a day. |
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every 2 hours. |
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four times a day. |
Question 18
Clonidine is a central alpha agonist used in the treatment of hypertension. However, it has a number of off-label uses including treatment for all of the following except
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hot flashes |
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ADHD |
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insomnia |
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withdrawal from alcohol and narcotics |
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asthma |
Question 19
A female patient has been taking prednisone for her asthma for 1 month. The nurse will teach her to gradually decrease her dose of prednisone to avoid
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hypokalemia. |
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gastrointestinal problems. |
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adrenal insufficiency. |
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menstrual irregularities. |
Question 20
All the following medications can be used to treat Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) except:
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A. |
Metformin |
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B. |
Vitamin C |
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C. |
Pioglitazone |
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D. |
Vitamin E |
Question 21
The Nurse Practitioner is preparing to Prescribe a medication regimen for her patient. He or she recognizes that criteria for choosing an effective drug for any disorder include:
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Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management |
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Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them |
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Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription |
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Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration guidelines for prescribing |
Question 22
When prescribing an antihypertensive medication for a type 2 diabetic patient, the drug classifications that would tend to reduce insulin sensitivity are:
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Diuretics and calcium channel |
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Diuretics and beta blockers. |
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Calcium channel blockers and ACE inhibitors. |
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Alpha blockers and ACE inhibitors. |
Question 23
A 35 year old patient presents with a concern of two high blood pressures at local health fairs in the past month. The patient has a history of Type 2 Diabetes, Chronic Constipation, and Obesity. Today her pressure is
145/93. You will:
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Begin hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily. |
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Ask the patient to monitor their BP’s at home and reduce their sodium intake |
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Begin amlodipine 10 mg daily. |
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Begin furosemide 20 mg daily. |
Question 24
NP is a 66-year-old male that is on Omeprazole for GERD and Clopidogrel for TIA prophylaxis. The pharmacist calls to tell you the Omeprazole should be switched due to a drug-drug interaction.What is the safest PPI alternative to change NP to?
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Esomeprazole |
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Pantoprazole* |
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Rabeprazole |
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Lansoprazole |
Question 25
You have a patient who complains of 3 months of frequent diarrhea (~40-50% of bowel movements). What is the best medication to start with to help control diarrhea?
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Pepto Bismol Liquid: 1 tbsp after each loose stool |
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Dicyclomine 10 mg: 1 capsule four times daily |
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Phenergan 25 mg: 1 tablet every 4 hours as needed |
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Loperamide 2 mg: 2 tablets after 1st loose stool, then 1 tablets after each subsequent loose stool (max of 8 mg/day) |
Question 26
Sam, a 28 yr old male presents to the office for a wellness check. He has a known history of a psychotic disorder. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has
the highest rate of extrapyramidal effects?
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Chlorpromazine |
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Quetapine |
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Ziprasidone |
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Haloperidol |
Question 27
The Family nurse practitioner prescribed losartan 50 mg PO daily for a hypertensive patient. This medication promotes vasodilation by:
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Blocking the action of angiotensin II |
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Promoting the synthesis of prostaglandins |
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Inhibiting calcium influx into smooth muscle cells |
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Promoting the release of aldosterone |
Question 28
The following factor(s) may reduce drug bioavailability.
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i. Gastric acid changes
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ii. First pass effect
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iii. Absence of GI flora
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iv. Digestive enzymes
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i only |
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i and iii only |
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i, ii and iii only |
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All of the above |
Question 29
A Native American man who lives a traditional lifestyle is scheduled to have heart surgery. The tribal chief has requested that the tribe’s medicine man perform a ritual before the patient goes to surgery. The nurse’s response to this request should be
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“I’m sorry, but that will not be possible.” |
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“I will need to inform the doctor and see if he will allow this.” |
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“As long as the ritual does not interfere with the patient’s preoperative care, it will be okay.” |
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“I don’t think that will help, but you have the right to perform the ritual. |
Question 30
Which laxative can be used to treat opioid-induced constipation:
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A. |
Mineral Oil |
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B. |
Bisacodyl |
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C. |
Senna |
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D. |
Docusate |
Question 31
What is the primary mechanism of action of the Class III Antiarrhythmic medications such as Amiodarone?
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Block fast sodium channels and slow action potential |
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Block beta receptors and slow heart rate |
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Block potassium channels and prolong repolarization |
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Block calcium channels causing vasodilation |
Question 32
A Nurse Practitioner is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) has been prescribed. Before the drug therapy is started, the nurse will assess for which of the following?
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History of taking anticoagulant drugs |
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Allergy to seafood |
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Hirsutism |
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The patient’s age |
Question 33
Which of the following is a potential adverse side effect of autonomic-anticholinergic
agents?
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Reduced GI motility |
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Bradycardia |
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Increased symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy |
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Photosensitivity |
Question 34
Some first generation antihistamines are used:
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as stimulants |
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to prevent motion sickness |
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as laxatives |
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as anticonvulsants |
Question 35
Which of the following is the strongest statin and dosage combination for the treatment of hyperlipidemia?
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atorvastatin 20 mg |
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simvastatin 20 mg |
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rosuvastatin 10 mg |
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pravastatin 40 mg |
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fluvastatin 80 mg |
Question 36
Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers include:
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i. Amlodipine
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ii. Nifedipine
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iii. Diltiazem
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iv. Verapamil
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i and ii only |
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i, ii and iii only |
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iii onlyD |
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iii and iv only |
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All of the above |
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None of the above |
Question 37
You have a 31-year-old female rheumatoid arthritis patient who is recently pregnant. Which rheumatoid arthritis medication is contraindicated in pregnancy?
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Plaquenil |
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Celebrex |
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Etanercept |
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Methotrexate |
Question 38
Once a patient is started on a medication for thyroid replacement, what is the typical amount of time to wait to repeat lab tests?
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14-16 weeks |
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3-4 weeks |
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10-12 weeks |
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6-8 weeks |
Question 39
Metformin (Glucophage) acts by:
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Enhancing insulin secretion |
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Decreasing hepatic glucose production with minor effects on insulin sensitivity in both liver and peripheral tissues |
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Increasing sensitivity in the muscle and liver |
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Suppressing glucagon producrtion |
Question 40
Which of the following is a not a risk associated with the use of Proton Pump Inhibitors:
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A. |
Pneumonia |
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B. |
Hypokalemia |
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C. |
Fractures |
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D. |
Hypomagnesemia |
Question 41
A 42-year-old male with asthma has been using beta agonists for years. He has no developed arrhythmias. His PCP has started him on a higher dose of Atenolol. What would you expect to happen?
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Atenolol is a beta agonist so the arrythmia worsened but asthma improved |
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Atenolol is beta nonselective to both improved |
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Atenolol increases airway obstruction worsening asthma but helped the arrythmia |
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Atenolol is cardioselective so it help the arrhythmia but did not exacerbate asthma |
Question 42
When adding Spironolactone to a patient’s regimen, the side effect to be most careful of is:
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Hypokalemia |
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Urticaria |
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Gynecomastia |
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Hyponatremia |
Question 43
What of the following has the potential to cause a drug interaction of serotonin syndrome?
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dextromethorphan |
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phenylephrine |
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pseudoephedrine |
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guaifenesin |
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diphenhydramine |
Question 44
In light of her recent high blood pressure readings, a patient has been started on a thiazide diuretic and metoprolol (Lopressor), which is a beta-adrenergic blocker. What is the most likely rationale for using two medications to address the patient’s
hypertension?
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The adverse effects of each drug may cancel each other out. |
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Using two drugs for a health problem tends to increase patient compliance with the drug regimen. |
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Using lower doses of two separate drugs may lessen the risk of adverse reactions. |
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Using the two drugs to treat a health problem may create a synergistic effect. |
Question 45
Which statement is FALSE regarding the treatment of hyperthyroidism?
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Methimazole (Tapazole) is the drug of choice for pregnant or lactating females. |
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Since methimazole (Tapazole) is stronger than Propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole |
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Propylthiouracil (PTU) reduces peripheral conversion of T4 to the more potent T3 |
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Long-acting beta-blocking agents are given as adjunctive therapy until Propulthiouracil |
Question 46
Topical inhaled alpha adrenergic blocking agents or nasal vasoconstricting decongestants should not be used chronically (>5 days)
because they can cause
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rebound insomnia |
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rebound coughing |
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rebound rhinitis/congestion |
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None of the above |
Question 47
Advanced practice nurse prescribing of scheduled medications is affected most by:
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Individual states laws regarding scheduled medications that can be prescribed and for |
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Combined state medical / pharmacy / nursing prescribing board regulations |
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FDA |
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DEA |
Question 48
A possible side effect from the use of nifedipine (Procardia XL) is:
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Hypokalemia |
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Hyperkalemia and tetany |
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Dry hacking cough and hyperuricemia |
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Edema of the ankles and headaches |
Question 49
The mechanism of action of Simvastatin is:
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Bile acid binding resin |
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Triglyceride binding |
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HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor |
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NPC1L1/Cholesterol complex inhibitor |
Question 50
The Nurse Practitioner is performing patient education for a woman who will soon begin treatment of hyperlipidemia with simvastatin (Zocor). The patient has asked the Nurse Practitioner if there are any “bad side effects” that she should be aware of. Which of the
following statements should underlie the nurse’s response?
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Many patients experience gastrointestinal upset with statins, which can be partially alleviated by taking the drug with food. |
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The patient may experience a dry cough, especially at night, for the first few weeks after starting to take the simvastatin. |
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The patient will have to schedule regular blood work to closely monitor her kidney function for the duration of treatment. |
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Most patients tolerate statins well, with minor muscle aches being among the most common adverse effects. |
Question 51
A 22-year-old male college senior has lived with a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease for several years and has undergone several courses of treatment with limited benefit. Which of the following targeted therapies has the potential to alleviate the symptoms of Crohn’s
disease?
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Tositumomab plus 131I (Bexxar) |
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Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3) |
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Infliximab (Remicade) |
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Eculizumab (Soliris) |
Question 52
A 67-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. He reports to the nurse that he has chronic arthritis and circulation problems. Further assessment by the nurse reveals that the patient has a history of mild hypertension. He explains that he owns a business and lives alone. The nurse determines that he is within the normal weight range
for his height and age but has a fondness for spicy foods and sweets. Which of the mentioned patient variables will have the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the patient’s drug therapy?
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Vascular impairment |
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Mild hypertension |
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Dietary habits |
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Chronic arthritis |
Question 53
A patient asks you what the mechanism of action is of Tizanidine. You tell them:
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It increases inhibition of motor neurons |
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The actual mechanism is unknown |
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It reduces somatic motor activity in gamma and alpha neurons |
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It decreases communication between nerves in the CNS |
Question 54
Which are the following antiviral agents are used to treat influenza:
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A. |
Valcyclovir |
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B. |
Oseltamivir |
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C. |
Ganciclovir |
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D. |
Sofosbuvir |
Question 55
What is associated with chronic overtreatment with levothyroxine (Synthroid)?
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Tachycardia |
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Osteoporosis |
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Insomnia |
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Sweating |
Question 56
You are treating a 56-year-old female for diabetes. Her recent labs show a SrCr of 1.5, GFR of 46 and serum glucose of 288. Based on these numbers, the medication you would want to stop is:
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Prednisone |
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Allopurinol |
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Metformin |
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Glipizide |
Question 57
Which medication class is recognized for the treatment of moderate to severe dementia?
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Cholinesterase inhibitors. |
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NMDA receptor antagonists. |
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SSRIs. |
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Central alpha2 agonists. |
Question 58
The side effects of antihistamines are mostly due to their:
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Anticholinergic effects |
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sedating effects |
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Anti-inflammatory effects |
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Immune system effects |
Question 59
A Nurse Practitioner is the cardiac care unit is preparing to hang an intravenous dose of dofetilide (Tikosyn) for a patient who has just been admitted. What is the most likely
goal of this intervention?
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To treat sinus bradycardia accompanied by hypotension |
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To resolve the patient’s uncompensated heart failure |
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To treat the patient’s ventricular tachycardia |
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To convert the patient’s atrial fibrillation to normal sinus rhythm |
Question 60
Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension?
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BMI > 30 |
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Smoking |
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Family history |
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None of the above |
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All of the above |
Question 61
A Nurse Practitioner working for a drug company is involved in phase III drug evaluation studies. Which of the following might the Nurse Practitioner be responsible for during this stage of drug development?
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Working with animals who are given experimental drugs |
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Monitoring drug effects in patients who are selected to participate in a study, who have the disease that the drug is meant to treat |
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Administering investigational drugs to patients |
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Informing healthy, young volunteer participants of possible risks that could occur from taking an experimental drug |
Question 62
A Nurse Practitioner is
providing discharge planning for a 45-year-old woman who has a prescription for oral albuterol. The Nurse Practitioner will question the patient about her intake of which of the following?
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Coffee |
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Alcohol |
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Salt |
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Vitamin C |
Question 63
Which of the following medications could worsen dementia in an Alzheimer patient?
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Morphine |
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Benadryl |
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Sertraline |
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Atenolol |
Question 64
Ms. Neely was placed on fluoxetine about 8 weeks ago and is doing well on the medication. When initially prescribed the medication, she asks you about the common side effects of this type of medication. Which choice below is correct?
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cough |
|
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loss of taste |
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weight loss |
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weight gain |
Question 65
Which of the following laxatives is available in both a tablet and suppository dosage form:
|
A. |
Mineral Oil |
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B. |
Bisacodyl |
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C. |
Senna |
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D. |
Docusate |
Question 66
A woman with numerous chronic health problems has been diagnosed with a benign gastric ulcer has begun treatment with ranitidine (Zantac). Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide to this patient?
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“Quitting smoking will significantly increase the chance that this drug will heal your ulcer.” |
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“This drug will help to eliminate the bacteria in your stomach that caused your ulcer.” |
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“You should eat several small meals each day rather than three larger meals.” |
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“Take each dose of ranitidine with an antacid of your choice.” |
Question 67
A Nurse Practitioner is discussing with a patient the efficacy of a drug that his physician has suggested, and he begin taking. Efficacy of a drug means which of the following?
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The amount of the drug that must be given to produce a particular response |
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How well a drug produces its desired effect |
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A drug’s strength of attraction for a receptor site |
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A drug’s ability to stimulate its receptor |
Question 68
Which of the following medications does not have a transdermal formulation?
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clonidine |
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fentanyl |
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ranolazine |
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nitroglycerin |
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scopolamine |
Question 69
You are treating a patient for C. Diff and are discharging them on a course of Metronidazole. The main counseling point you need to address is:
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Avoid alcohol |
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Take on an empty stomach |
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Separate by 2 hours from all other meds |
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Do not crush or chew |
Question 70
A 58-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department. A diagnosis of severe digoxin toxicity is made. Bradycardia is present, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms toxicity. The nurse will administer which of the following drugs?
|
Furosemide |
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Digoxin immune fab |
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Captopril |
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Dopamine |
Question 71
Several months of treatment with a statin accompanied by lifestyle modifications have failed to appreciably improve a patient’s cholesterol levels. Consequently, the patient has been prescribed cholestyramine. The nurse should recognize that this drugs achieves
its therapeutic effect by
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binding LDL to HDL. |
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mitigating the harmful effects of atherosclerosis by promoting vasodilation. |
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inhibiting the synthesis of cholesterol. |
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oxidizing cholesterol to bile acids. |
Question 72
BP is a 72-year-old male with hyperlipidemia, GERD, A fib and epilepsy. His current meds are Atorvastatin, Eliquis, Phenytoin and Protonix. He is being seen for not “feeling good” for the past week. Blood tests reveal most of his meds are at toxic plasma levels.
He states that over the past 2 weeks he has taken extra OTC heart burn medication. Which medication did BP most likely use?
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Famotidine |
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Cimetidine |
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Tums |
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Alka Seltzer |
Question 73
Which effect does the Nurse Practitioner expect may occur when using cholinergic agonists?
|
dry mouth |
|
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tachycardia |
|
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increased bladder tone |
|
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pupil dilation |
Question 74
A homeless man who is well known to care providers at the local hospital has been admitted to the emergency department after having a seizure outside a mall. The man is known to be a heavy alcohol user and is malnourished with a very low body mass index. How are this patient’s characteristics likely to influence possible treatment with
phenytoin?
|
The patient will require oral phenytoin rather than intravenous administration. |
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Phenytoin is contraindicated within 48 hours of alcohol use due to the possibility of paradoxical effects. |
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The patient’s heavy alcohol use will compete with phenytoin for binding sites and he will require a higher-than-normal dose. |
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The patient’s protein deficit will likely increase the levels of the free drug in his blood. |
Question 75
A patient with unstable angina pectoris who is NOT controlled with a nitrate would likely benefit most from the addition of:
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Sodium channel blocker |
|
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Beta blocker |
|
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Cardiac glycoside |
|
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Either 1 or 2 |
Question 76
A Nurse Practitioner is instructing a patient concerning a newly prescribed drug. Which of the following should be included to help improve patient compliance and safety?
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A list of pharmacies where the drug can be obtained |
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Measures to alleviate any discomfort associated with adverse effects |
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The cost of the brand drug compared with the generic form |
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Statistics related to phase III of testing for the prescribed drug |
Question 77
Which type of antihistamines are used to inhibit the secretion of gastric acid in patients with gastrointestinal disorders?
|
H1 |
|
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H2 |
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H3 |
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H4 |
Question 78
Which antihypertensive has been shown to have mild uricosuric effects in gout patients?
|
Losartan |
|
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Lisinopril |
|
|
Atenolol |
|
|
Amlodipine |
Question 79
The American Geriatric Society provides the Beers Criteria to aid providers in knowing
|
A. |
Dosage Adjustments Necessary in Chronic Renal Disease |
|
B. |
Potentially Inappropriate Medications that Should Be Avoided in the Geriatric Population |
|
C. |
Medications That Cannot be Crushed |
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D. |
Medications that are Safe to use in the Pediatric Population |
Question 80
A patient with diabetes has had a cough for 1 week and has been prescribed a cough syrup (an expectorant). What special instructions should the nurse include in the patient teaching for this situation?
|
Wash hands before and after taking the medicine |
|
|
Keep track of any gastrointestinal tract infections |
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Monitor glucose levels closely |
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Note the time the medicine is taken each day |
Question 81
A patient comes to primary clinic for strep throat. A throat swab culture is sent to lab. What information is required for the nurse practitioner to disclose on lab transmittal?
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National Provider Identification (NPI) |
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Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) |
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Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA) |
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None of the above |
Question 82
Bioavailability is best described as:
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Amount of drug give that is metabolized |
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Extent and rate which a drug enters the circulation |
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Amount of drug that facilitates effects in the body |
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Amount of time drug is present in the body |
Question 83
Mr. Penny, age 67, was diagnosed with chronic angina several months ago and has been unable to experience adequate relief of his symptoms. As a result, his physician has prescribed ranolazine (Ranexa). Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ranolazine for the treatment of this patient’s angina?
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Ranolazine confers protection from myocardial infarction but does not relieve symptoms of angina. |
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Amlodipine will now be contraindicated in the treatment of Mr. Penny’s |
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Mr. Penny will need to be taught to monitor his blood pressure and heart rate. |
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Mr. Penny requires concurrent treatment with a beta blocker, nitrate, or a calcium channel blocker. |
Question 84
The pharmacokinetic processes include all the following except:
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A. |
Absorption |
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B. |
Metabolism |
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C. |
Distribution |
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D. |
Circulation |
Question 85
A 79-year-old patient in a long-term care facility is to receive an intravenous fat emulsion. Which of the following lab values would be a priority for the nurse to assess before administration?
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Blood glucose levels |
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Serum potassium levels |
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Serum sodium levels |
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Triglyceride levels |
Question 86
A 53-year-old man has been treated for severe asthma for several years with prednisone. Recently, his physician initiated alternate-day therapy for him. The patient tells the nurse that he would rather take the medication every day to prevent confusion. Which of the
following would be the best response by the nurse?
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“This schedule will be more convenient for you.” |
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“This schedule will enable you to lose weight.” |
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“This schedule will decrease the cost of your medication.” |
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“This schedule allows rest periods so that adverse effects are decreased but the anti-inflammatory effects continue.” |
Question 87
Tylenol with codeine is what controlled substance schedule?
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C-II |
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C-III |
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C-IV |
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C-V |
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C-VI |
Question 88
Which of the following can block the action of heparin?
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Phytomenadione |
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Vitamin K |
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Idarucizumab |
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Protamine sulfate |
Question 89
An elderly patient with a history of congestive heart failure has been admitted to hospital with failure to thrive and admission blood work reveals a hemoglobin level of 6.9 g/dL. The care team has consequently administered two units of packed red blood cells, but
auscultation of the client’s lungs now reveals diffuse crackles. Administration of what drug is likely to resolve the patient’s pulmonary edema?
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Furosemide |
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Hydrochlorothiazide |
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Mannitol |
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Triamterene |
Question 90
You are on rounds and the nurse lets you know that after the patient’s last asthma medication dose they because tachycardic and nervous. The likely medication that caused this was:
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Albuterol |
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Isoproterenol |
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Terbutaline |
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None of the above |
Question 91
A teenage boy has undergone a diagnostic workup following several months of persistent, bloody diarrhea that appears to lack an infectious etiology. The boy has also experienced intermittent abdominal pain and has lost almost 15 pounds this year. Which of the following medications is most likely to treat this boy’s diagnosis?
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Lubiprostone |
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Mesalamine |
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Docusate |
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Bismuth subsalicylate |
Question 92
How does cholestyramine lowers blood cholesterol?
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Feedback inhibition of its synthesis |
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Hormonal repression of cholesterol synthesis in the liver |
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Speeding conversion to steroid hormones |
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Sequestering bile salts and thus decreasing absorption and increasing catabolism |
Question 93
A Nurse Practitioner who is responsible for administering medications should understand that the goals of the MedWatch program are to (Select all that apply.)
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provide regular feedback about product safety issues. |
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accredit new medical facilities and hospitals. |
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facilitate the reporting of adverse reactions of drugs. |
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increase awareness of serious reactions caused by drugs or medical devices. |
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report medication errors that occur in hospitals. |
Question 94
The most effective therapy for a patient who is H. pylori positive with a gastric ulcer is:
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Amoxicillin, Metronidazole, and Bismuth |
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Cephalexin, Bismuth, Omeprazole, and Ranitidine |
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Bismuth, Metronidazole, Omeprazole, and Tetracycline |
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Amoxicillin, Cefzil, and omeprazole |
Question 95
A 34-year-old male patient is prescribed methimazole (MMI). The Nurse Practitioner will advise him to report which of the following immediately?
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Vertigo |
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Intolerance to cold |
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Loss of appetite |
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Epigastric distress |
Question 96
A patient has been prescribed an oral drug that is known to have a high first-pass effect. Which of the following measures has the potential to increase the amount of the free drug that is available to body cells?
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Giving the drug with food in order to delay absorption |
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Administering the drug in small, frequent doses |
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Limiting the patient’s protein intake and encouraging fluids |
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Administering the drug intravenously rather than orally |
Question 97
The parents of a 7-year-old boy who has just been diagnosed with allergic asthma are being taught about their son’s medication regimen by the nurse. The nurse is currently teaching the parent’s about the appropriate use of a “rescue drug” for acute exacerbations
of their son’s asthma. What drug should the nurse suggests the parents to use
in these situations?
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Theophylline |
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Albuterol |
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Beclomethasone |
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Acetylcysteine |
Question 98
A Nurse Practitioner receives an order to administer a critically ill patient two drugs immediately (stat). The Nurse Practitioner begins the process by
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washing his or her hands before handling the medications. |
|
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consulting a drug guide for compatibility. |
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questioning the patient concerning allergies. |
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identifying the patient by checking the armband and asking the patient |
Question 99
Typical adverse reactions to oral calcium-channel blockers include:
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dyspnea |
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edema |
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fatigue |
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cough |
Question 100
Which statement about a partial drug agonist is correct?
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Partial agonists always cause a maximal response |
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Partial agonists have affinity for the target receptor, but no |
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Partial agonists have affinity and efficacy at the target receptor |
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Partial agonists have an agonistic effect on the receptor, but only |
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