NURS 6501 Final Exam – Advanced Pathophysilogy
Question 1
A patient is in status epilepticus. In addition to giving medication to stop the seizures, what would the healthcare professional place highest priority on?
A) Facilitating a CT scan of the head
B) Providing oxygen
C) Assessing for brain death
D) Assessing for drug overdose
Question 2
Without prior exposure to an antigen, which cells are able to destroy some types of tumor cells and some virus-infected cells?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Plasma cells
C) Megakaryocytes
D) Natural killer (NK) cells
Question 3
The APRN is assessing a patient that is talking so rapidly and urgently that it is difficult to understand. This is an example of:
A) Delusion
B) Hallucination
C) Anhedonia
D) Pressured speech
Question 4
What type of thoughts are characteristic of post traumatic stress disorder?
A) disorganized
B) intrusive
C) anxious
D) disturbing
Question 5
Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system abnormalities exist in a large percentage of individuals with what?
A) Schizophrenia
B) Major depression
C) Mania
D) Panic disorder
Question 6
A child has scoliosis with a 40-degree curvature of the spine, and the parent is worried about pulmonary involvement. What statement by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A) Scoliosis is a bone disorder and does not affect the lungs.
B) Yes, we should obtain pulmonary function studies soon.
C) Scoliosis severe enough to involve the lungs would be fatal.
D) The lungs aren’t affected until the curvature is over 80 degrees. 1
Question 7
What is the role of thromboxane A (TXA 2) in the secretion stage of hemostasis?
A) Stimulates the synthesis of serotonin.
B) Promotes vasodilation.
C) Stimulates platelet aggregation.
D) Promotes formation of cyclooxygenase.
Question 8
A person has a vascular anomaly associated with a congenital malformation of dermal capillaries and has been told this lesion does not fade with age. What treatment options can the healthcare professional discuss with this person?
A) Surgical excision
B) Pulsed dye laser
C) Cool temperatures
D) Cosmetic tattooing
Question 9
A patient has polycythemia vera and presents to the Emergency Department with plethora and neurological changes. The student asks the healthcare professional to explain the primary cause of these symptoms. What response by the professional is best?
A) Decreased erythrocyte count
B) Destruction of erythrocytes
C) Increased blood viscosity
D) Tissue destruction by macrophages
Question 10
Gait disturbances and instability are characteristic of which form of cerebral palsy?
A) Spastic
B) Dystonic
C) Ataxic
D) Biochemical
Question 11
Which statement by the healthcare professional accurately describes childhood asthma?
A) An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
B) A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging
C) A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
D) An obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Question 12
52-year-old female presents to the clinic with dysuria, urgency and frequency. She reports symptoms have been present for the past week. She also has nausea, vomiting, flank pain and an elevated temperature of 100.7. Patient has a history of Diabetes Mellitus and Overactive Bladder. She reports intermittent gross hematuria for the past week. Further evaluation by urinalysis with micro, identifies microhematuria, with greater than 100 RBC/HPF present. What are the likely differential diagnoses to consider?
A) Urinary calculi
B) Atrophic Vaginitis
C) Pyelonephritis
D) Urinary Tract Infection
Question 13
The APRN is treating a patient with bipolar 1 disorder. The major focus of treatment is on:
A) mania
B) depression
C) anxiety
D) panic attacks
Question 14
A patient is in the intensive care unit and has intercranial pressure (ICP) monitoring. The patient’s ICP is 17 mmHg. The healthcare professional notes that the chart indicates the patient is now in stage 1 intracranial hypertension. What assessment finding does the professional associate with this condition?
A) Rapid spike in measured ICP
B) No significant change in ICP readings
C) Restlessness and subtle breathing and pupil changes
D) A widened pulse pressure and bradycardia
Question 15
A healthcare professional has taught a parent group about the causes of enuresis. What statement by a parent indicates the professional needs to give more information?
A) A maturational lag may cause enuresis.
B) Enuresis may be related to increased light sleep.
C) Obstructive sleep apnea may be a symptom of enuresis.
D) Elevated nocturnal levels of vasopressin may cause enuresis.
Question 16
What diagnosis is given to parents when their infant’s hip maintains contact with the acetabulum but is not well seated within the hip joint?
A) Dislocatable hip
B) Subluxated hip
C) Dislocated hip
D) Subluxable hip
Question 17
A healthcare professional suspects a patient is brain dead. How would the professional assess for brain death?
A) Determine if the patient can make voluntary movements.
B) Perform tests to assess if the patient is in a coma.
C) Remove the patient’s ventilator to see if spontaneous breathing occurs.
D) Monitor the patient for eye movements that seem purposeful.
Question 18
Mr. Smith, 58 years old, presents to the urology office with complaints of gross hematuria which have been present for five days. He also expresses difficulty with urination and episodes of dysuria. He is experiencing flank pain, which radiates into the abdomen and groin. Mr. Smith has had nausea and vomiting. He does not drink many fluids, but when he does his fluid intake usually caffeinated beverages. The NP knows that:
A) The lumen of the prostatic urethra narrows and lengthens, resulting in progressive urine flow obstruction.
B) This process occurs when there is growth of the glandular-epithelial and stromal/muscle tissue of the prostate.
C) Acute pain can result from renal colic, which occurs when the smooth muscle of the ureter contracts to move a kidney stone.
D) Renal tubule dysfunction and atrophy can result from renal tissue fibrosis, which includes transforming growth factor and angiotensin II in the process.
Question 19
A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
Question 20
A newborn baby displays jaundice 20 hours after birth. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A) Draw blood to measure total bilirubin.
B) Teach the patient about phototherapy.
C) Obtain consent for blood transfusions.
D) Prepare to administer vitamin K.
Question 21
The APRN is assessing a patient that states that Napoleon Bonaparte is the King of France even thought he has a book that says he is dead. This is an example of:
A) Delusion
B) Hallucination
C) Anhedonia
D) Pressured speech
Question 22
A patient reports small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days. What treatment does the healthcare professional educate the patient about?
A) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B) Three injections of penicillin
C) One time dose of azithromycin
D) Test of cure
Question 23
Local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease-related lymphadenopathy are a result of what?
A) Pressure and ischemia
B) Pressure and obstruction
C) Inflammation and ischemia
D) Inflammation and pressure
Question 24
In acute hypothermia, what physiologic change shunts blood away from the colder skin to the body core in an effort to decrease heat loss?
A) Hypotension
B) Peripheral vasoconstriction
C) NVoluntary muscle movements
D) Shivering
Question 25
What causes the vasomotor flushes (hot flashes) that are associated with declining ovarian function with age?
A) Decreased estrogen levels
B) Absence of estrogen
C) Increased estrogen levels
D) Rapid changes in estrogen levels
Question 26
A 7 year-old-child presents to the clinic where parents report signs and symptoms consistent with asthma. What does the healthcare professional do in order to confirm this diagnosis?
A) Assess for a parental history of asthma
B) Draw serum levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) and eosinophil levels
C) Measure expiratory flow rate with spirometry testing
D) Give a trial of asthma medication and check for improvement
Question 27
Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?
A) Premenstrual syndrome
B) Abnormal uterine bleeding
C) Polycystic ovary syndrome
D) Primary dysmenorrhea
Question 28
Which condition is consistent with the cardiac defect of transposition of the great vessels?
A) The aorta arises from the right ventricle.
B) The pulmonary trunk arises from the right ventricle.
C) The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs.
D) An intermittent murmur is present.
Question 29
A patient has pernicious anemia and asks the healthcare professional to explain the disease. Which statement by the professional is most accurate?
A) The lack of certain foods in your diet
B) Your body cannot absorb vitamin B 12.
C) You are not getting enough vitamin C.
D) Your bone marrow has stopped working.
Question 30
Cystic fibrosis is characterized by which symptom?
A) Excessive mucus production
B) Elevated blood glucose levels
C) Low sodium content in perspiration
D) Abnormally thin exocrine secretions
Question 31
A preschool teacher notices a child who has burrows on the hands that are several millimeters to 1 cm long, papules, and vesicular lesions. What other assessment finding would help the teacher determine the type of infestation the child has?
A) Ask the child if he or she has been around puppies or kittens.
B) Check the child’s hair for the presence of small mites.
C) Ask the child if itching occurs especially at night.
D) Assess the child’s trunk and abdomen for petechiae.
Question 32
A person has been diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) that is positive for the Philadelphia chromosome. What statement by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A) This is good news and means the ALL is not very aggressive. 1d
B) This is a very rare finding in adults who have ALL. 1d
C) We are planning to get your disease in remission, but it will be hard. 1d
D) You will need colony-stimulating support during your treatment. 1d
Question 33
Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) can result in which type of cancer?
A) Breast cancer
B) Leukemia
C) Vaginal cancer
D) Lymphoma
Question 34
A healthcare professional is educating a community men’s group on symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The professional relates that most symptoms are a result of which pathophysiologic condition?
A) Infection of the prostate
B) Obstruction of the urethra
C) Ischemia of the urethra
D) Compression of the urethra
Question 35
Which mother does the healthcare professional prepare to administer Rh immune globulin (Rho-GAM) to?
A) Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative
B) Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive
C) Has type A blood and the fetus has type O
D) Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B
Question 36
The disruption in cellular adhesion observed in bullous impetigo is caused by an exfoliative toxin related to which organism?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Escherichia coli
D) Candida albicans
Question 37
The APRN is assessing a patient that is talking to his mother in the corner of the room even although you are the only other person in the room. This is an example of:
A) Delusion
B) Hallucination
C) Anhedonia
D) Pressured speech
Question 38
An infant has gluten-sensitive enteropathy and the parents ask the healthcare professional to explain why the baby bruises so easily. The professional explains that the baby has which deficit?
A) Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption
B) Bone marrow function depression
C) Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias
D) Prescribed daily warfarin
Question 39
Which patient finding would lead the health care professional to assess the patient for inflammatory joint disease?
A) Unilateral joint involvement
B) Normal joint synovial fluid
C) Absence of synovial membrane inflammation
D) Systemic symptoms of inflammation
Question 41
A student asks the healthcare professional why researchers are trying to link specific genes to specific asthma phenotypes. What response by the professional is best?
A) Some types of asthma are easier to treat than others.
B) Some people could use cheaper medications.
C) It can lead to personalized approaches to treatment.
D) More and more asthma phenotypes are being recognized.
Question 42
A parent asks the healthcare professional to explain why a child diagnosed with Tetralogy of Fallot squats frequently. What explanation by the professional is best?
A) Reduces the chest pain
B) Controls dizziness
C) Relieves hypoxia
D) Improves headache
Question 43
In order to help prevent a preadolescent girl from developing later cervical cancer, which virus does the healthcare professional recommend vaccination against to the parent?
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C) Herpes simplex II virus (HSV)
D) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Question 44
The neurobiology of depression is believed to be related to the atrophy of neurons in the:
A) hypothalmus
B) hippocampus
C) thalmus
D) amygdala
Question 45
A patient in the healthcare clinic reports fatigue, weakness, and dyspnea, as well as pale conjunctiva of the eyes and brittle, concave nails. What assessment by the healthcare professional is most appropriate for the suspected anemia?
A) Blood pressure and apical pulse
B) Oral mucus membranes and tongue
C) Ability to swallow foods and liquids
D) Skin and sclera for normal coloration
Question 46
John, 64, reports that he has a severe curvature of his penis which occurred all at once. He is involved in vigorous athletic activities 4-5 days per week and does not recall an injury during his activities, only that he awoke with a painful curved erection and shortened erection. The nurse practitioner knows that:
A) Peyronie’s disease self-limiting and will go away on its own.
B) Peyronie’s disease is an inflammatory condition, resulting in noncompliant fibrous nodules in the tunica albuginea.
C) Peyronie’s disease only occurs as a result of microvascular trauma. All activities should be avoided for 4-6 weeks, to allow for healing.
D) Peyronie’s disease results from an abnormality in arterial inflow, resulting in venous leakage at the site of veno-occlusion.
Question 47
A woman attempting to conceive tells the healthcare professional that she and her partner have intercourse when her basal body temperature (BBT) is around 37ËšC (98ËšF) without getting pregnant. What information does the professional give the woman?
A) Maybe you need a fertility workup.
B) That’s a normal temperature, but during ovulation BBT decreases.
C) Temperature alone is not the most accurate way to predict ovulation.
D) BBT rises consistently above 37.8″1eC (100″1eF) with ovulation.
Question 48
A healthcare professional works with recent refugees. A mother brings in her children who have been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. What action by the professional is most appropriate?
A) Educate the mother on an iron-rich diet.
B) Arrange to test for parasitic infections.
C) Explain the weekly iron infusions.
D) Teach the mother to give iron supplements.
Question 49
A patient has primary immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and is hospitalized after a bleeding episode. What treatment does the healthcare provider anticipate being ordered for this patient?
A) Blood transfusions
B) Infusion of IVIG
C) Anticoagulants
D) Large doses of folic acid
Question 50
A 9-year-old child has a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg in the school nurse’s office. What action by the school nurse is most appropriate?
A) Inform the parents the child might be dehydrated.
B) Note the normal finding in the child’s records.
C) Calculate the child’s Body Mass Index.
D) Refer the child for medication.
More NURS 6501 Final Exam Questions
Question 51
A child has Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What complication does the healthcare professional teach the parents is most important to control?
A) Respiratory infection
B) Joint contractures
C) Urinary tract infection
D) Fractures from falling
Question 52
A patient has defective secretion of the intrinsic factor leading to anemia. What treatment option does the healthcare professional discuss with the patient?
A) Increasing iron sources in the diet such as red meat.
B) Vitamin B 12 injections initially given once a week.
C) Having relatives tested for bone marrow donation.
D) Better control of the patient’s underlying disorder.
Question 53
The health care professional is caring for a person who has a pathologic fracture. The patient asks the professional to explain the condition. What response by the professional is best?
A) The outer surface of the bone is disrupted, but the inside is intact.
B) A stable fracture where the cortex of the bone bends but doesn’t break.
C) A fracture that happens at the site of an abnormality already in that bone.
D) It was caused by the cumulative effects of stress on the bone over time.
Question 54
A student asks the professor to explain the jaundice that accompanies hemolytic anemia. Which statement is by the professor is most accurate?
A) Erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen.
B) Heme destruction exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.
C) The patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT).
D) The erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin.
Question 55
A person has abnormally severe tooth decay and erosion of the tooth enamel. What problem should the health care professional assess the person for?
A) Anorexia nervosa
B) Binge eating
C) Bulimia
D) Refeeding syndrome
Question 56
A child has cystic fibrosis (CF). Which medication does the healthcare professional teach the parents about?
A) Pancreatic enzymes
B) Antihypertensives
C) Antibiotics
Question 57
A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who was rewarmed after suffering from hypothermia. What possible long-term complication will the professional continue to assess the patient for?
A) Acidosis
B) Dysrhythmias
C) Shock
D) Renal failure
Question 58
A patient has a temporary displacement of two bones in a joint causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact with each other. What treatment does the health care professional prepare the patient for?
A) Internal fixation
B) Reduction and immobilization
C) Calcium phosphate cement
D) Low-density ultrasound
Question 59
In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin, bone and soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, and neurosyphilis?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Latent
D) Tertiary
Question 60
A healthcare professional is seeing a patient with suspected schizophrenia. For which prenatal occurrence should the professional assess?
A) Viral infection
B) Maternal depression
C) Maternal smoking
D) Exposure to toxic waste
Question 61
Which statement by the professor best describes acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
B) A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and the presence of bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray imaging
C) A respiratory disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
D) pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Question 62
A child has phenylketonuria (PKU). The healthcare professional educates the parents on the special diet needed, telling them that children with PKU are unable to synthesize what?
A) Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine
B) Renin, erythropoietin, and antidiuretic hormone
C) Aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens
D) Neurotransmitters gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine
Question 63
A patient reports frequent nightmares. For which of these should the healthcare professional assess the patient?
A) A recent major loss
B) Family history of nightmares
C) History of traumatic event
D) Poor nutrition and weight loss
Question 64
The student wants to know how the clinical manifestations and onset of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) differ from those of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in adults. What answer by the healthcare professional is best?
A) JIA begins insidiously with systemic signs of inflammation.
B) JIA predominantly affects large joints.
C) JIA has more severe joint pain than adult RA.
D) JIA has a rapid onset of generalized aches as the first symptom.
Question 65
A patient has been diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) and asks the healthcare professional to describe it. What description by the professional is most accurate?
A) ALL is a progressive neoplasm defined by the presence of greater than 30% lymphoblasts in the bone marrow or blood.
B) In ALL, immature blasts cells replace normal myelocytic cells, megakaryocytes, and erythrocytes.
C) B cells fail to mature into plasma cells that synthesize immunoglobulins.
D) The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 create an abnormal, fused gene identified as BCR-ABL.
Question 66
A professor explains to a class that the reason lymph nodes enlarge and become tender during infection is because of what reason?
A) B lymphocytes proliferate.
B) The nodes are inflamed.
C) The nodes fill with purulent exudate.
D) The nodes are not properly functioning.
Question 67
A patient has been exposed to prolonged high environmental temperatures and now shows signs of dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia. What treatment does the healthcare professional prepare to administer to this patient?
A) Administer salty beverages to the patient.
B) Aggressive cooling methods to rapidly lower temperature
C) Encourage the patient to have genetic testing after recovery.
D) Give the patient plenty of cool fluids to drink.
Question 68
Ataxia involves:
A) The inability to formulate words
B) An interruption in the peripheral nerves ability to regenerate
C) An interruption in coordination that can involve the arms and legs
D) An interruption in gait due to the inability to step over objects
Question 69
Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgA
Question 70
Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain?
A) Gate control theory (GCT)
B) Pattern theory
C) Specificity theory
D) Neuromatrix theory
Question 71
A student reads in a chart that a baby was born with an encephalocele. The student asks the healthcare professional to explain this condition. What explanation by the healthcare professional is best?
A) A herniation or protrusion of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull
B) A protruding saclike cyst of meninges filled with spinal fluid and is a mild form of spina bifida
C) Protrusion of a saclike cyst containing meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in the posterior arch of a vertebra
D) Premature closure of one or more of the cranial sutures during the first 18 to 20 months of an infant’s life
Question 72
The healthcare professor states that a patient has reached pain tolerance. What further information from the professor is most accurate?
A) The patient cannot endure a higher level of pain intensity at this point.
B) The patient’s pain tolerance is much lower because of consuming too much alcohol.
C) The patient’s pain in one place is higher because pain in multiple other sites.
D) The patient now recognizes what is being felt is actually pain.
Question 73
A healthcare professional is teaching a community group about inherited disorders. What pattern of inheritance does the professional describe for sickle cell disease?
A) Inherited X-linked recessive disorder
B) Inherited autosomal recessive disorder
C) Disorder initiated by hypoxemia and acidosis
D) Disorder that is diagnosed equally in men and women
Question 74
A healthcare professional is discussing breast feeding with a pregnant woman. Which beneficial substance does the professional tell the mother is found in breast milk?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
Question 75
A person comes to the healthcare clinic and reports night sweats and fever. The healthcare professional obtains a chest x-ray which shows a mediastinal mass. What other assessment or diagnostic test does the professional provide as a priority?
A) Listen to heart sounds.
B) Assess the patient’s skin.
C) Arrange for familial DNA testing.
D) Test blood for anemia.
Question 76
A man reports to the healthcare professional that he had a sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and perineal pain with high fever and chills, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A) Assess the man’s recent sexual history.
B) Recommend heat and acetaminophen for back pain.
C) Prepare the man for prostatic massage.
D) Assist the man in obtaining a urine sample.
Question 77
A student asks the professor what the most common pathophysiologic process is that triggers aplastic anemia (AA). What response by the professor is most accurate?
A) Autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated cytotoxic T (Tc) cells
B) Malignancy of the bone marrow in which unregulated proliferation of erythrocytes crowd out other blood cells
C) Autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated immunoglobulins
D) Inherited genetic disorder with recessive X-linked transmission
Question 78
What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
A) Down syndrome
B) Wilms tumor
C) Retinoblastoma
D) Neuroblastoma
Question 79
A patient in the hospital has been receiving heparin injections. The platelet count on admission was 222,000/mm 3 and four days later is 113,000/mm 3. What action by the healthcare professional is best?
A) Prepare to transfuse the patient with platelets.
B) Do nothing; this is an expected side effect.
C) Switch the heparin to lepirudin
D) Stop all the patient’s medications.
Question 80
Parents bring their 1-year-old child to the emergency department, reporting that the child has been irritable and pounding on her head, has projectile vomiting, and seems very sleepy for most of the last 3 days. What diagnostic testing does the healthcare professional prepare the child and parents for as the priority?
A) Brain scanning with either CT or MRI
B) Lumbar puncture with CSF cultures
C) Developmental assessment
D) Ophthalmologic assessment
Question 81
A pregnant woman is seen for the first time at 6 months’ gestation and has not taken prenatal vitamins. The healthcare professional educates the woman on the need for a blood test specifically to assess what substance?
A) Total protein
B) Culture
C) a-Fetoprotein
D) C-reactive protein
Question 82
How does the epididymis become infected?
A) The pathogenic microorganisms ascend the vasa deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder.
B) The pathogenic microorganisms are attached to sperm that travel through the genital tract.
C) The pathogenic microorganisms from the tunica vaginalis are transported to the epididymis.
D) The pathogenic microorganisms from the prostate fluid ascend to the epididymis.
Question 83
Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
A) Heads of the femur
B) Distal femurs
C) Heads of the humerus
D) Distal tibias
Question 84
A woman has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome but is confused because her pelvic ultrasound (US) was read as normal and did not show cysts. What response by the health care professional is most appropriate?
A) We will schedule another US in 3 months to check again.
B) The cysts may be too small to see right now.
C) Maybe that diagnosis was incorrect; let’s schedule more testing.
D) You do not need to have cysts on your ovaries to have this condition.
Question 85
Monoamine neurotransmission is hypothesized to be _______________ during mania.
A) increased
B) decreased
C) absent
D) suspended
Question 86
Which of the following are positive clinical manifestations of schizophrenia?
A) Social withdraw, blunted affect, and failure to respond to simple questions
B) Hallucinations, delusions, and incoherent speech
C) Hallucinations, blunted affect, and social withdraw
D) Delusions, hallucinations, and failure to respond to simple questions
Question 87
A patient has ankylosing spondylitis. Which description of this condition by the health care professional is most accurate?
A) Chronic inflammatory disease with stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joint
B) Chronic systemic inflammatory disease that affects many tissues and organs
C) State of abnormal and excessive bone resorption and formation
D) Wide-spread and deep chronic muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points
Question 88
A healthcare professional advises a pregnant woman to add supplements of which nutrient to her diet to prevent birth defects?
A) Iron
B) Vitamin C
C) Zinc
D) Folate
Question 89
What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
A) Immature immune system
B) Small alveoli
C) Surfactant deficiency
D) Anemia
Question 90
A patient has been diagnosed with lithium toxicity. Which electrolyte imbalance does the healthcare professional correlate with this condition?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypokalemia
Question 91
A healthcare professional in an urban clinic is seeing a patient who has iron deficiency anemia (IDA). What question by the professional is most appropriate to assess for the cause of IDA?
A) How many times a week do you have iron-rich foods? 1d
B) Have you ever noticed any blood in your stool? 1d
C) Do you have a history of heart valve replacement? 1d
D) Have you had any recent viral infections? 1d
Question 92
How should the healthcare professional reply when parents question why a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the head was not ordered for their 5-year-old child after a minor fall?
A) Physicians are cautious about ordering CT scan on children younger than 10 years of age.
B) CT scans are seldom conclusive when used to diagnosis head injuries in young children.
C) The child’s symptoms will determine whether a CT scan is necessary and worth the expense.
D) Research suggests that repeated CT scans can increase the risk of developing brain cancer.
Question 93
A woman who is positive for hepatitis B is in labor. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A) Draw blood for a drug screen.
B) Encourage the mother to bottle feed.
C) Immunize the newborn within 12 hours.
D) Discuss poor infant survival.
Question 94
A patient has hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias. What condition does the healthcare professional prepare to teach the patient about?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Hereditary hemochromatosis
D) Immune thrombocytopenia purpura
Question 95
A student is learning about pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). What information does the student clarify with a study partner as being correct?
A) An episode of mild PID can decrease the possibility of a successful pregnancy by 80%.
B) Such an inflammation may result in permanent changes to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian tubes.
C) PID has not been associated with an increased risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
D) Contracting this infection increases the risk of cervical cancer.
Question 96
This region of the brain is responsible for sensory, touch, spatial awareness, and navigation.
A) Occipital
B) Frontal
C) Temporal
D) Parietal
Question 97
Which cells function to maintain bone matrix?
A) Osteoclasts
B) Osteocytes
C) Osteoblasts
D) Osteophytes
Question 98
A mother reports that her young teens have voracious appetites. The healthcare professional would explain that which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty?
A) Inhibin
B) Leptin
C) Activin
D) Follistatin
Question 99
A child has a disorder that resulted in the failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity. What treatment plan does the healthcare professional discuss with the parents?
A) Extremely careful handling
B) Increasing vitamin D intake
C) Revascularization
D) Containment and motion therapy
Question 100
A healthcare professional is caring for a patient diagnosed with aphasia. What action by the professional would be best in working with this patient?
A) Provide physical therapy.
B) Provide speech therapy.
C) Provide special thickened foods.
D) Provide balance activities.
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